No not at all if the house was bought while they where married this is classed as a “marital asset” this means that as long as both names are on the mortgage and there is evidence of both parties putting money into a joint account to cover the cost of the mortgage they are equally responsible for not only the “debt” of the mortgage but also the amount of equity that has grown in the property. Therefore in the case of a divorce with no dependents present the equity after sale would be considered an equal split. There is no greater clam for either party. If she was pregnant her lawyer could argue she needed to stay in the property to ensure there was no “emotional distress” but even that would be an argument not an given. It’s should be a clean break as long as all party’s play the game ☺️
What claim would she make of a failed IVF cycle?? He doesn't really have control over if it worked or not worked....
Ff